Mail Archives: djgpp/1999/05/03/06:56:54
1. Yes, if the same random-number generator algorithm is used on both
machines.
2. Yes, this is how rand() works... look at the source to it (there's
other sources available on the web too).
Peter Johnson
locke AT mcs DOT net
On Sun, 2 May 1999 22:26:35 +0100, Richard Fabian
<richard AT the-fabians DOT demon DOT co DOT uk> wrote:
>Two questions related to random number generation:
>1. If you generate a set of random numbers using the same seed on
>different machines, do you get the same set?
> (I want to make a fractal landscape map that is the same for everyone)
>
>2. Is there a way to generate random numbers without accessing the
>rand() function. (i.e. is there an algorithmic way to generate rand())
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